NURS 6512N Final Exam 3 (100 out of 100)

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NURS-6512N-45, Advanced Health Assessment (100 out of 100 points)

1. Which of the following statements is true regarding the examination of peripheral arteries?

2. The reliability of health-related findings and observations is the responsibility of the:

3. When palpating breast tissue, the examiner should use the _____ at each site.

4. Temporalis and masseter muscles are evaluated by:

5. The strength of the trapezius muscle is evaluated by having the patient:

6. An ophthalmoscopic eye examination involves:

7. To assess a cremasteric reflex, the examiner strokes the:

8. You are examining a patient in the emergency department who has recently sustained head trauma. In order to initially assess this patient's neurologic status, you would:

9. Recent unilateral inversion of a previously everted nipple suggests:

10. Your older clinic patient is being seen today as a follow-up for a 2-day history of pneumonia. The patient continues to have a productive cough, shortness of breath, and lethargy and has been spending most of the day lying in bed. You should begin the chest examination by:

11. Montgomery tubercles are most prominent in the breasts of:

12. At your first meeting with a patient, it is usually best to say:

13. The checkout station for preparticipation physical evaluation (PPE) is critical because at this point:

14. If a patient cannot shrug the shoulders against resistance, which cranial nerve (CN) requires further evaluation?

15. The difference in blood pressure readings between the right and the left arms is considered normal up to _____ mm Hg.

16. If your patient has nipple discharge, you will most likely need a:

17. You are examining Mr. S., a 79-year-old diabetic man complaining of claudication. Which of the following physical findings is consistent with the diagnosis of arterial occlusion?

18. The foramen ovale should close:

19. In the most effective percussion technique of the posterior lung fields, the patient cooperates by:

20. Assessing orientation to person, place, and time helps determine:

21. When the Goodenough-Harris Drawing Test is administered to a child, the evaluator principally observes the:

22. Throughout the history and physical examination, the clinician should:

23. Ulnar deviation and boutonniere deformities are characteristic of:

24. Your 15-year-old patient is athletic and thin. Radiography of an ankle injury reveals a stress fracture. You should question this patient about her:

25. Inspection of the scrotum should reveal:

26. As Mr. B. enters the room, you observe that his gait is wide based and he staggers from side to side while swaying his trunk. You would document Mr. B.'s pattern as:

27. A patient you are seeing in the emergency department for chest pain is suspected of having a myocardial infarction. During the health history interview of his family history, he relates that his father had died of "heart trouble." The most important follow-up question you should pose is which of the following?

28. A grade IV mitral regurgitation murmur would:

29. You are conducting a preparticipation physical examination for a 10-year-old girl with Down syndrome who will be playing basketball. She has slight torticollis and mild ankle clonus. What additional diagnostic testing would be required for her?

30. To spread the breast tissue evenly over the chest wall, you should ask the woman to lie supine with:

31. When assessing a 17-year-old for nuchal rigidity, you gently raise his head off the examination table. He involuntarily flexes his hips and knees. To confirm your suspicions associated with this positive test, you would also perform a test for the _____ sign.

32. You are assessing Mr. Z.'s fluid volume status as a result of heart failure. If your finger depresses a patient's edematous ankle to a depth of 6 mm, you should record this pitting as:

33. You are initially evaluating the equilibrium of Ms. Q. You ask her to stand with her feet together and arms at her sides. She loses her balance. Ms. Q. has a positive:

34. When is the mental status portion of the neurologic system examination performed?

35. A positive straight leg raise test usually indicates:

36. The adnexa of the uterus are composed of the:

37. A parent is advised to restrict contact or collision sports participation for their child. An example of a sport in which this child could participate is:

38. A patient in the deepest coma would be scored a _____ on the Glasgow Coma Scale.

39. Tarry black stool should make you suspect:

40. During chest assessment, you note the patient's voice quality while auscultating the lung fields. The voice sound is intensified, there is a nasal quality to the voice, and the e's sound like a s. This sound is indicative of:

41. Which one of the following is a proper technique for use of a speculum during a vaginal examination?

42. Loss of immediate and recent memory with retention of remote memory suggests:

43. When palpating joints, crepitus may occur when:

44. You are conducting an examination of Mr. Curtis's heart and blood vessels and auscultate a grade III murmur. The intensity of this murmur is:

45. A red, hot swollen joint in a 40-year-old man should lead you to suspect:

46. A pulsation that is diminished to the point of being barely palpable would be graded as:

47. An apical PMI palpated beyond the left fifth intercostal space may indicate:

48. An examiner has rotated a brush several times into the cervical os. The brush was withdrawn and stroked lightly on a glass slide. The slide was sprayed with fixative. Which type of specimen requires this technique for collection?

49. Cranial nerve XII may be assessed in an infant by:

50. Anterior cruciate ligament integrity is assessed via the _____ test.

51. Part of the screening orthopedic component of the examination includes evaluating the person while he or she is:

52. One of the most important aspects to consider in the orthopedic screening examination is:

53. Which cranial nerves are usually evaluated during the examination of the eyes?

54. A cervical polyp usually appears as a:

55. The presence of cervical motion tenderness may indicate:

56. When you attempt to move a 10-month-old child from his mother's lap to the examination table, he screams loudly. Your best action is to:

57. Electrical activity recorded by the electrocardiogram (ECG) tracing that denotes the spread of the stimulus through the atria is the:

58. In the adult, the apical impulse should be most visible when the patient is in what position?

59. You are interviewing a 20-year-old patient with a new-onset psychotic disorder. The patient is apathetic and has disturbed thoughts and language patterns. The nurse recognizes this behavior pattern as consistent with a diagnosis of:

60. While examining a 30-year-old woman, you note that one breast is slightly larger than the other. In response to this finding, you should:

61. The examiner percusses for diaphragmatic excursion along the:

62. Examination of the patient in the lithotomy, or knee-chest, position includes:

63. The Mini-Mental State Examination should be administered for the patient who:

64. A finding that is indicative of osteoarthritis is:

65. While interviewing a 70-year-old female clinic patient, she tells you that she takes ginkgo biloba and St. John's wort. You make a short note to check for results of the:

66. Which portion of the physical examination is best done with the patient standing?

67. To hear diastolic heart sounds, you should ask patients to:

68. You are conducting a clinical breast examination for your 30-year-old patient. Her breasts are symmetrical with bilateral, multiple tender masses that are freely moveable with well-defined borders. You recognize that these symptoms and assessment findings are consistent with:

69. To assess spinal levels L2, L3, and L4, which deep tendon reflex should be tested?

70. Which condition is considered progressive rather than reversible?

71. The Mini-Mental State Examination:

72. The rectal past medical history of all patients should include inquiry about:

73. Nerves that arise from the brain rather than the spinal cord are called:

74. Facial muscle or tongue weakness may result in:

75. The finger-to-nose test allows assessment of:

76. The best way to ease the apprehension of a 3-year-old child before a physical examination is to:

77. During a routine prenatal visit, Ms. T. was noted as having dependent edema, varicosities of the legs, and hemorrhoids. She expressed concern about these symptoms. You explain to Ms. T. that her enlarged uterus is compressing her pelvic veins and her inferior vena cava. You would further explain that these findings:

78. While collecting personal and social history data from a woman complaining of breast discomfort, you should question her regarding:

79. When assessing superficial pain, touch, vibration, and position perceptions, you are testing:

80. Which medical condition would exclude a person from sports participation?

81. You are inspecting the genitalia of an uncircumcised adult male. The foreskin is tight and cannot be easily retracted. You should:

82. Nancy Walker is a 16-year-old girl who presents to the clinic with complaints of severe, acute chest pain. Her mother reports that Nancy, apart from occasional colds, Nancy is not prone to respiratory problems. What potential risk factor is most important to assess with regards to Nancy's current problem?

83. A 12-year-old boy relates that his left scrotum has a soft swollen mass. The scrotum is not painful upon palpation. The left inguinal canal is without masses. The mass does transilluminate with a penlight. This collection of symptoms is consistent with:

84. Breath odors may clue the examiner to certain underlying metabolic conditions. The odor of ammonia on the breath may signify:

85. When conducting a geriatric assessment, basic activities of daily living (ADLs) include:

86. If pitting edema is unilateral, you would suspect occlusion of a:

87. An idiopathic spasm of arterioles in the digits is termed:

88. Diabetic peripheral neuropathy will likely produce:

89. Breath sounds normally heard over the trachea are called:

90. The family history for a patient with joint pain should include information about siblings with:

91. The physical assessment technique most frequently used to assess joint symmetry is:

92. Bimanual examination of the uterus includes:

93. Which one of the following techniques is used to detect a torn meniscus?

94. The goals of preparticipation sports evaluation include:

95. A common finding in markedly obese and pregnant women is: